Q. What is the definition of Jewish rule over the Land of Israel? Why is the democratic State of Israel defined on the one hand as embodying the rule of all its citizens (wherein there is a significant percentage of non-Jewish citizens), and on the other hand, it declares itself a state that, according to the Torah, constitutes Jewish sovereignty?
Why is the military rule over Judea and Samaria under Jordanian laws considered Jewish sovereignty? What is the limit beyond which, G-d forbid, Israel would not constitute Jewish sovereignty?
A. Since the vast majority of citizens are Jews, and every Jew in the world has the right to become a citizen of Israel, the official language is Hebrew, Shabbat and Jewish holidays are official state holidays, and all of the other clear Jewish symbols of the state - the State of Israel is. Jewish state.
It is true that we should strive for all state matters to be conducted according to the Torah, but this will happen as the number of students of Torah involved in the life of the state increases and they guide it in the spirit of the Torah - in the economy, military policies, police, etc.
Answered by Rav Yaakov Ariel, yeshiva.co/ask, translated by Sharona Cohen
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